Otaku-sempai wrote: ↑Tue Jan 30, 2018 3:45 pm
Well, since Tolkien himself clarified that Middle-earth
is our own Earth of approximately 6000 years ago, just fictionalized, I think we can disregard your source.
Let's not oversimplify. The conception of Middle-earth changed drastically over Tolkien's lifetime. It started as a mythical location for his elvish languages, and he conceived of it as the mythological origin story for England that England never had. England itself was Tol Eressea, only the elves had faded away, and the fall of Gondolin had only taken place mere scores of years before the Germanic invasions began.
The more Tolkien developed Middle-earth, the more realistic it became. It ceased to be quite so directly tied to the real world, and by the point of development reached in
The Silmarillion, it was no longer a mythology of England, Tol Eressea was no longer England, and the lands did not directly correspond to real-world continents.
The Lord of the Rings does not take place necessarily 6,000 years ago, but in a vague prehistorical time; 6,000 years is just the cutoff when known civilizations start to develop out of pre-urban cultures.
After the period of the published
Silmarillion, Tolkien continued to develop MIddle-earth. He even tried to completely remove the flat-earth origin of the world: Arda had always been a globe, and instead the early darkness was actually Morgoth spreading black clouds throughout the atmosphere. I'm glad he didn't completely develop this idea.
So Tolkien wasn't really concerned with placing Middle-earth exactly in a historical context, nor was he particularly interested in ensuring geographic verisimilitude. The geography of Middle-earth as Tolkien published it looks nothing like the geography of Europe, and there's no way that a mere 6,000 years could change one into the other. There is very little point in trying to force the setting into any realistic science, including Tolkien's ideas of how far you can see from any given point.