The topic is a bit ambiguous (as for so many cases), but IMO it favours the point brought forward by Otaku slightly. On the one hand we have Gandalf's words:Falenthal wrote:I also think the story is like Otaku says. But I can't recall the exact source where I got that idea. I'd had to look at the Appendixes, probably.Otaku-sempai wrote:Hmmm. My understanding is that Saruman did not make use of the Orthanc-stone until around the year TA 3000, and his mind was captured by Sauron the first time he did so. Thoughts or comments?
This might support the view that it took some time for Saruman to be caught by Sauron. At first he was wise and careful enough to stay away from Mordor, but finally he became incautious. There is precedence for it: Denethor used the Anor-stone extensively, but most of the time was wise enough to keep his gaze away from Mordor and thus avoid Sauron's attention (who had the Ithil-stone).J.R.R. Tolkien wrote: But alone it [a palantír] could do nothing but see small images of things far off and days remote. Very useful, no doubt, that was to Saruman; yet it seems that he was not content. Further and further abroad he gazed, until he cast his gaze upon Barad-dûr. Then he was caught!
--- LotR.The Palantír
The entry in Appendix B is more specific though. It says for "c. TA 3000" that Saruman dared to use the palantír (implying he did not do so before this time) and is caught by Sauron with the Ithil-stone. IMO this makes it quite clear that Saruman did not use the Orthanc-stone much before that time (personally I'd set 5 years as the absolute maximum to still qualify as "c. 3000"). Thus the temporal connection between his first use of the stone and Sauron catching him would not be that far apart. I'd set this again at about 5 years maximum. Sauron could not have the Ithil-stone under constant surveillance to detect any foreign activity (as told by Tolkien) and thus Saruman's activity might get away unnoticed for some time. This might also be a reasonable explanation for Gandalf's words above: If Saruman was at first careful (and lucky!) and only caught a few years (say 3-5) later, there is time for this development hinted at by Gandalf.
This very late use is interesting, as it is elsewhere mentioned that Saruman specifically sought to settle in Isengard since he had good reason to assume that it's palantír resided there still intact and ready for a potential user. Why he did not use this object of his desire (extremely useful for him without doubt) for about 250 years - and still before Sauron's identity was finally blown - needs some good explanation IMO.
Cheers
Tolwen